2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试
英语（全国甲卷）听力
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
2022 高考英语听力甲卷录音音频：00:0025:28合集#高考听力29个
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What does the man want to do?
A. Have breakfast.
B.Take a walk.
C.Call his office.
2. What was George doing last night?
A. Having a meeting.
B. Flying home.
C.Working on a project.
3. What does the man suggest going to the park?
A. It's big.
B. It's quiet.
C. It's new.
4.How does the woman sound?
A. Annoyed
B. Pleased.
C. Puzzled.
5.Where is the man's table?
A. Near the door.
B. By the window.
C. In the corner.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.What are the speakers going to do tonight?
A. Eat out.
B. Go shopping.
C. Do sports.
7.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Boss and secretary.
B. Hostess and guest.
C. Husband and wife.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Why does the woman think June is the best time to move?
A. Their business is slow.
B. The weather is favorable.
C. It's easy to hire people.
9.How will they handle the movie?
A. Finish it all at once.
B. Have the sales section go first.
C.Do one department at a time.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.What did Peter learn from his grandfather?
A. How to appreciate artworks.
B. How to deal with artists.
C. How to run a museum.
11. What did Peter do in Chicago?
A. He studied at a college.
B. He served in the army.
C. He worked in a gallery.
12. Whose works did Peter like best?
A. Rembrandi’s.
B. Botticelli’s.
C. Rubens’.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.Where does the conversation take place?
A. At a library.
B. In a law firm.
C. On a train.
14.By what time did John plan to finish his term paper?
A. March.
B. August.
C. October.
15.Why did John quit his part-time job?
A. He had to catch up with his study.
B. He was offered a better one.
C. He got tired of it.
16.What is Susan the attitude to John’s problem?
A. Carefree.
B. Understanding.
C.Forgiving.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.What did the speaker do before the year 2012?
A. Fitness coach.
B. A chess player.
C. A marathon runner.
18.Why was the 2016 Olympics important for the speaker?
A. He was motivated by Bolt.
B. He broke a world record.
C. He won fifth place.
19. Which is the hardest for the speaker?
A.Getting over the injury.
B.Doing strength training.
C.Representing Botswana.
20.What is the speaker mainly talking about?
A. His plan to go for the gold.
B. His experience on the track.
C. His love for his home country.
第二都分闽读理解 (共两节.满分40分)
A
Theatres and Entertainment
St David's Hall
St David's Hall is the award winning National Concert Hall of Wales standing at the very heart of Cardiff’s entertainment centre. With an impressive 2,000-seat concert hall, St David's Hall is home to the annual Welsh Proms Cardiff. It presents live entertainment, including pop, rock, folk, jazz, musicals, dance, world music, films and classical music.
The Hayes, Cardiff CF10 1AH
www.stdavidshallcardiff.co.uk
The Glee Club
Every weekend this is "Wales" premier comedy club where having a great time is the order for both audiences and comedy stars alike. It is hard to name a comedy star who hasn’t been on the stage here. If you are looking for the best comedies on tour and brilliant live music, you should start here.
Mermaid Quay, Cardiff Bay, Cardiff CF10 SBZ
www.glee.co.uk/cardiff
Sherman Cymru
Sherman Cymru's theatre in the Cathays area of Cardiff reopened in February 2012. This special building is a place in which theatre is made and where children, artists, writers and anyone else have the opportunity to do creative things. Sherman Cymru is excited to present a packed programme of the very best theatre, dance, family shows and music from Wales and the rest of the world.
Senghennydd Road, Cardiff CF24 4YE
www.shermancymru. co.uk
New Theatre
The New Theatre has been the home of quality drama, musicals, dance and children's shows for more than 100 years. Presenting the best of the West End along with the pick of the UK's touring shows, the New Theatre is Cardiff's oldest surviving traditional theatre. Be sure to pay a visit as part of your stay in the city.
Park Place, CardiffCF10 3LN
www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk
21. Where is the Welsh Proms Cardiff hosted?
A. At the New Theatre. B. At the Glee Club.
C. At Sherman Cymru. D.At St David's Hall.
22. What can people do at the Glee Club?
A. Watch musicals. B. Enjoy comedies.
C. See family shows. D. Do creative things.
23. Which website can you visit to learn about Cardiff's oldest surviving theatre?
A. www.newthetrecardiff.co.uk B. www.shermancymru.co.uk
C. www.glee co.uk/cardiff D. www.stdavidshallcardiff.co.uik
B
Goffin's cockatoos, a kind of small parrot native to Australia, have been shown to have similar shape-recognition abilities to a human two-year-old. Though not known to use tools in the wild, the birds have proved skillful at tool use while kept in the cage. In a recent experiment, cockatoos were presented with a box with a nut inside it. The clear front of the box had a “keyhole” in a geometric shape, and the birds were given five differently shaped “keys” to choose from. Inserting the correct “key” would let out the nut.
In humans, babies can put a round shape in a round hole from around one year of age, but it will be another year before they are able to do the same with less symmetrical (对称的) shape. This ability to recognize that a shape will need to be turned in a specific direction before it will fit is called an "allocentric frame of reference" In the experiment, Goffin's cockatoos were able to select the right tool for the job, in most cases, by visual recognition alone. Where trial-and-error was used, the cockatoos did better than monkeys in similar tests. This indicates that Goffin's cockatoos do indeed possess an allocentric frame of reference when moving objects in space, similar to two-year old babies.
The next step, according to the researchers, is to try and work out whether the cockatoos rely entirely on visual clues(线索), or also use a sense of touch in making their shape selections.
24. How did the cockatoos get the nut from the box in the experiment?
A. By following instructions. B. By using a tool.
C. By turning the box around. D. By removing the lid.
25. Which task can human one-year-olds most likely complete according to the text?
A. Using a key to unlock a door. B. Telling parrots from other birds.
C. Putting a ball into a round hole. D. Grouping toys of different shapes.
26. What does the follow-up test aim to find out about the cockatoos?
A. How far they are able to see. B. How they track moving objects.
C. Whether they are smarter than monkeys. D. Whether they use a sense of touch in the test
27. Which can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Cockatoos: Quick Error Checkers B. Cockatoos: Independent Learners
C. Cockatoos: Clever Signal-Readers D. Cockat0os: Skilful Shape-Sorters
C
As Ginni Bazlinton reached Antarctica, she found herself greeted by a group of little Gentoo penguins(企鹅) longing to say hello. These gentle, lovely gatekeepers welcomed her and kick-started what was to be a trip Ginni would never forget.
Ever since her childhood, Ginni, now, 71, has had a deep love for travel. Throughout her career (职业) as a professional dancer, she toured in the UK, but always longed to explore further. When she retired from dancing and her sons eventually flew the nest, she decided it was time to take the plunge.
After taking a degree at Chichester University in Related Arts, Ginni began to travel the world, eventually getting work teaching English in Japan and Chile. And it was in Chile she discovered she could get last-minute cheap deals on ships going to Antarctica from the islands off Tierra del Fuego, the southernmost tip of the South American mainland. "I just decided I wanted to go," she says ."I had no idea about what l'd find there and I wasn't nervous, I just wanted to do it. And I wanted to do it alone as I always prefer it that way."
In March 2008, Ginni boarded a ship with 48 passengers she'd never met before, to begin the journey towards Antarctica. "From seeing the wildlife to witnessing sunrises, the whole experience was amazing, Antarctica left an impression on me that no other place has," Ginni says. "I remember the first time I saw a humpback whale; it just rose out of the water like some prehistoric creature and I thought it was smiling at us. You could still hear the operatic sounds it was making underwater."
The realization that this is a precious land, to be respected by humans, was one of the biggest things that hit home to Ginni.
28. Which of the following best explains "take the plunge" 'underlined in paragraph2?
A. Try challenging things. B. Take a degree.
C. Bring back lost memories. D. Stick to a promise.
29. What made Ginni decide on the trip to Antarctica?
A. Lovely penguins. B. Beautiful scenery.
C. A discount fare. D.A friend's invitation.
30. What does Ginni think about Antarctica after the journey?
A. It could be a home for her. B. It should be easily accessible.
C. It should be well preserved. D. It needs to be fully introduced.
31. What is the text mainly about?
A. A childhood dream. B. An unforgettable experience,
C. Sailing around the world. D. Meeting animals in Antarctica.
D
Sometime in the early 1960s, a significant thing happened in Sydney, Australia. The city discovered its harbor. Then, one after another, Sydney discovered lots of things that were sort of there-broad parks, superb beaches, and a culturally diverse population. But it is the harbor that makes the city.
Andrew Reynolds, a cheerful fellow in his early 10s, pilots Sydney ferryboats for a living. I spent the whole morning shuttling back and forth across the harbor After our third run Andrew shut down the engine, and we went out separate ways -he for a lunch break. I to explore the city.
“I'll miss these old boats," he said as we parted
"How do you mean?" I asked.
"Oh, they're replacing them with catamarans. Catamarans are faster, but they're not so elegant, and they're not fun to pilot. But that's progress, I guess."
Everywhere in Sydney these days, change and progress are the watchwords(口号). and traditions are increasingly rare. Shirley Fitzgerald, the city's official historian, told me that in its rush to modernity in the 1970s, Sydney swept aside much of its past, including many of its finest buildings. "Sydney is confused about itself," she said. "We can't seem to make up our minds whether we want a modern city or a traditional one. I's a conflict that we aren't getting any better at resolving(解决)."
On the other hand, being young and old at the same time has its attractions. I considered this when I met a thoughtful young businessman named Anthony. "Many people say that we lack culture in this country," he told me. "What people forget is that the Italians, when they came to Australia, brought 2000 years of their culture, the Greeks some 3000 years, and the Chinese more sill. We've got a foundation built on ancient cultures but with a drive and dynamism of a young country. It's a pretty hard combination to beat."
He is right, but I can't help wishing they would keep those old ferries.
32. What is the first paragraph mainly about?
A. Sydney's striking architecture. B. The cultural diversity of Sydney.
C. The key to Sydney's development. D. Sydney's tourist attractions in the 1960s.
33. What can we learn about Andrew Reynolds?
A. He goes to work by boat. B. He looks forward to a new life.
C. He pilot catamarans well. D. He is attached to the old ferries.
34. What does Shirley Fitzgerald think of Sydney?
A. It is losing its traditions. B. It should speed up its progress.
C. It should expand its population D. It is becoming more international.
35. Which statement will the author probably agree with?
A. A city can be young and old at the same time.
B. A city built on ancient cultures is more dynamic.
C. Modernity is usually achieved at the cost of elegance.
D. Compromise should be made between the local and the foreign.
七选五
Important Things to Know When Dining Out
Cultural dining etiquette (礼节) might surprise you with some of its important rules. 36 . Knowing some tips will help ensure that you have an enjoyable meal with friends or family - no matter where you are in the world.
Chopstick Rules
The way you handle chopsticks is important to avoid annoying your companions. When you put them down between bites, always put them down together so they are parallel with the edge of the table in front of you. 37 .
Hands or Utensils(餐具)
In India and the Middle East, it's considered very rude to eat with your left hand. People in France expect you to eat with a utensil in each hand. 38 , instead preferring to use their hands. In Chile, you may never touch any food with your fingers. People in Thailand generally use their forks only to push food onto their spoons.
Making Requests
39 . ln Portugal, this would be a serious mistake, because it shows the chef that you don't like their seasoning skills. Similarly, in Italy, never ask for extra cheese to add to your food.
Some of these cultural dining etiquette rules may seem random and strange, but they are important in various countries. 40 . the more comfortable you'll begin to feel with its foreign cultural practices.
A. The more friends you make in your lifeime
B. The more time you spend in any given country
C. Mexicans consider it inappropriate to eat with utensils
D. Don't get caught making an embarrassing mistake at a restaurant
E. It's a good sign for the chef if you make a mess around your plate
F. Never stick them upright in your food or cross them as you use them
G. It may seem like a simple request to ask for salt and pepper at a meal
You can tell a lot about a man by how he treats his dogs.
For many years, I enjoyed living with my dogs, Tilly and Chance. Their 41 was nearly enough to keep my loneliness at bay. Nearly, last year, I started dating, but with 42 . When I first dated Steve, I 43 he had d dog, Molly, and a cat, Flora. While I was 44 that he was an animal lover, I 45 that three dogs were perhaps too many, and my dogs might attack 46 , the cat.
The next week we 47 our dogs together. It was a hot day. When we paused to catch our 48 , Steve got down on one knee. Was he proposing(求婚)? I liked him too, but so 49 ? He poured water from a bottle into his hand and offered it to my dogs. 50 , I began to fall for him.
We 51 to date, though neither of us brought up the future. And then in late November, Tilly had an operation on her 52 . I took the dogs out four times a day, and I worried that Tilly 53 climbing the stairs could reopen the wound. Then Steve 54 his house. All worked 55 . The three dogs formed a pack that, with coaching. 56 Flora’s space; Steve and I formed a good team 57 for Tilly. We made good housemates.
A year later, much to my 58 , this man produced a little box with a ring and proposed to me. He did not kneel(跪) down, nor did I 59 him to. That’s only for giving 60 to the dogs that brought us together.
41. A. ownership B. membership C. companionship D. leadership
42. A. reservations B. expectations C. confidence D.prejudice
43. A. feared B. doubted C. hoped D. learned
44. A. unsatisfied B. amused C. terrified D. thrilled
45. A. predicted B. worried C. regretted D. insisted
46. A. Flora B. Chance C. Molly D. Tilly
47. A. tied B. walked C. bathed D. fed
48. A. breath B. balance C. attention D. imagination
49. A. calm B. sure C. soon D. real
50. A. By the way B. In that case C. By all means D. In that moment
51. A. continued B.decided C.intended D.pretended
52. A.eye B.tail C.ear D.leg
53. A.secretly B.constantly C.eventually D.unwillingly
54. A.left B.sold C.suggested D.searched
55. A.late B.hard C.fine D.free
56. A.emptied B.respected C.occupied D.discovered
57. A.looking B.caring C.waiting D.calling
58. A.delight B.credit C.interest D.disadvantage
59. A.beg B.trust C.need D.aid
60. A.toys B.awards C.food D.water
第二节
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A visually-challenged man from Beijing recently hiked(徒步) 40 days to Xi'an, as a first step 61 (jouney) the Belt and Road route (路线) by foot.
On the 1,100-kilometer journey, the man Cao Shengkang, 62 lost his eyesight at the age of eight in a car accident, crossed 40 cities and countries in three provinces. Inspired by the Bet and Road Forum for International Cooperation 63 (hold) in Beijing. Cao decided to cover the route by hiking as a tribute (致敬)to the ancient Silk Road. 64 friend of his, Wu Fan, volunteered to be his companion during the tip.
Cao and Wu also collected garbage along the road, in order to promote environmental 65 (protect). Cao believes this will make the hiking trip even more 66 (meaning). The two of them collected more than 1,000 plastic bottles along the 40-day journey.
In the last five years, Cao 67 (walk) through 34 counties in six continents, and in 2016, he reached the top of Kilimanjaro, Africa's 68 (high) mountain.
Now, Cao has started the second part of his dream to walk along the Belt and Road route. He few 4,700 kilometers 69 Xi’an to Kashgar on Sept.20, 70 (plan)to hike back to Xi'an in five months.
第四部分 写作
第一节 短文改错
My father often took me to his hospital when I was off my school. He showed me how his medical instruments was used. I often felt so closely to him. However, after I went to high school, somehow I become distant from him. I was unwilling talk with him and often disobeyed his rule of not stay out with my friends too late. The disagreement was too sharp that neither he nor I knew what to settle it. One day, he talked with me or hoped to mend our relations. With the efforts made by all sides, we began to understand each other better.
第二节 书面表达
你校将以六月八日世界海洋日为主题，举办英语征文比赛，请你写一篇短文投稿。内容包括：
1. 海洋的重要性；
2. 保护海洋的倡议。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 短文的题目和首句已为你写好。
2022高考全国甲卷—英语答案（非标准答案）阅读理解 DBA BCDD ACCB CDAA
七选五 DFCGB
完型 CADDB ABACD ADBCC BBACD
语法填空 to journey, who, held, A, protection, meanings, walked, highest, from, planning
英语
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does the man want to do?
A. Have breakfast. B. Take a walk. C. Call his office.
2. What was George doing last night?
A. Having a meeting. B. Flying home. C. Working on a project.
3. Why does the man suggest going to the park?
A. It's big. B. It's quiet. C. It's new.
4. How does the woman sound?
A. Annoyed. B. Pleased. C. Puzzled.
5. Where is the man's table?
A. Near the door. B. By the window. C. In the corner.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What are the speakers going to do tonight?
A. Eat out. B. Go shopping. C. Do sports.
7. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Boss and secretary. B. Hostess and guest. C. Husband and wife.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Why does the woman think July is the best time to move?
A. Their business is slow. B. The weather is favorable. C. It's easy to hire people.
9. How will they handle the moving?
A. Finish it all at once. B. Have the sales section go first. C. Do one department at a time.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did Peter learn from his grandfather?
A. How to appreciate art works. B. How to deal with artists. C. How to run a museum.
11. What did Peter do in Chicago?
A. He studied at a college. B. He served in the army. C. He worked in a gallery.
12. Whose works did Peter like best?
A. Rembrandt's. B. Botticelli's. C. Rubens'.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Where does the conversation take place?
A. At a library. B. In a law firm. C. On a train.
14. By what time did John plan to finish his term paper?
A. March. B. August. C. October.
15. Why did John quit his part-time job?
A. He had to catch up with his study. B. He was offered a better one. C. He got tired of it.
16. What is Susan's attitude to John's problem?
A. Carefree. B. Understanding. C. Forgiving.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What did the speaker do before the year 2012?
A. A fitness coach. B. A chess player. C. A marathon runner.
18. Why was the 2016 Olympics important for the speaker?
A. He was motivated by Bolt. B. He broke a world record. C. He won fifth place.
19. Which is the hardest for the speaker?
A. Getting over an injury. B. Doing strength training. C. Representing Botswana.
20. What is the speaker mainly talking about?
A. His plan to go for the gold.
B. His experience on the track.
C. His love for his home country.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Henry Raeburn（1756-1823）
The Exhibition
This exhibition of some sixty masterpieces celebrating the life and work of Scotland's best loved painter, Sir Henry Raeburn, comes to London. Selected from collections throughout the world, it is the first major exhibition of his work to be held in over forty years.
Lecture Series
Scottish National Portrait（肖像画）Gallery presents a series of lectures for the general public. They are held in the Lecture Room. Admission to lectures is free.
An Introduction to Raeburn
Sunday 26 Oct., 15.00
DUNCAN THOMSON
Raeburn's English Contemporaries
Thursday 30 Oct., 13.10
JUDY EGERTON
Characters and Characterisation in
Raeburn's Portraits
Thursday 6 Nov., 13.10
NICHOLAS PHILLIPSON
Raeburn and Artist's Training in the
18th Century
Thursday 13 Nov., 13.10
MARTIN POSTLE
Exhibition Times
Monday-Saturday 10.00-17.45 Sunday 12.00-17.45
Last admission to the exhibition: 17.15. There is no re-admission.
Closed: 24-26 December and 1 January.
Admission
£4. Children under 12 years accompanied by an adult are admitted free.
Schools and Colleges
A special low entrance charge of f2 per person is available to all in full-time education, up to and including those at first degree level, in organised groups with teachers.
21. What is the right time for attending Raeburn's English Contemporaries?
A. Sun. 26 Oct. B. Thurs. 30 Oct. C. Thurs. 6 Nov. D. Thurs.13 Nov.
22. How much would a couple with two children under 12 pay for admission?
A. £4. B. £8. C. £12. D. £16.
23. How can full-time students get group discounts?
A. They should go on Sunday mornings. B. They should come from art schools.
C. They must be led by teachers. D. They must have ID cards with them.
B
In 1916, two girls of wealthy families, best friends from Auburn, N. Y.—Dorothy Woodruff and Rosamond Underwood—traveled to a settlement in the Rocky Mountains to teach in a one-room schoolhouse. The girls had gone to Smith College. They wore expensive clothes. So for them to move to Elkhead, Colo. to instruct the children whose shoes were held together with string was a surprise. Their stay in Elkhead is the subject of Nothing Daunted: The Unexpected Education of Two Society Girls in the West by Dorothy Wickenden, who is a magazine editor and Dorothy Woodruff's granddaughter.
Why did they go then? Well, they wanted to do something useful. Soon, however, they realized what they had undertaken.
They moved in with a local family, the Harrisons, and, like them, had little privacy, rare baths, and a blanket of snow on their quilt when they woke up in the morning. Some mornings, Rosamond and Dorothy would arrive at the schoolhouse to find the children weeping from the cold. In spring, the snow was replaced by mud over ice.
In Wickenden's book, she expanded on the history of the West and also on feminism, which of course influenced the girls' decision to go to Elkhead. A hair-raising section concerns the building of the railroads, which entailed（牵涉）drilling through the Rockies, often in blinding snowstorms. The book ends with Rosamond and Dorothy's return to Auburn.
Wickenden is a very good storyteller. The sweep of the land and the stoicism（坚忍）of the people move her to some beautiful writing. Here is a picture of Dorothy Woodruff, on her horse, looking down from a hill top: "When the sun slipped behind the mountains, it shed a rosy glow all around them. Then a full moon rose. The snow was marked only by small animals: foxes, coyotes, mice, and varying hares, which turned white in the winter."
24. Why did Dorothy and Rosamond go to the Rocky Mountains?
A. To teach in a school. B. To study American history.
C. To write a book. D. To do sightseeing.
25. What can we learn about the girls from paragraph 3?
A. They enjoyed much respect. B. They had a room with a bathtub.
C. They lived with the local kids. D. They suffered severe hardships.
26. Which part of Wickenden's writing is hair-raising?
A. The extreme climate of Auburn. B. The living conditions in Elkhead.
C. The railroad building in the Rockies. D. The natural beauty of the West.
27. What is the text?
A. A news report. B. A book review. C. A children's story. D. A diary entry.
C
Can a small group of drones（无人机）guarantee the safety and reliability of railways and, at the same time, help railway operators save billions of euros each year? That is the very likely future of applying today's "eyes in the sky" technology to making sure that the millions of kilometres of rail tracks and infrastructure（基础设施）worldwide are safe for trains on a 24/7 basis.
Drones are already being used to examine high-tension electrical lines. They could do precisely the same thing to inspect railway lines and other vital aspects of rail infrastructure such as the correct position of railway tracks and switching points. The more regularly they can be inspected, the more railway safety, reliability and on-time performance will be improved. Costs would be cut and operations would be more efficient（高效）across the board.
That includes huge savings in maintenance costs and better protection of railway personnel safety. It is calculated that European railways alone spend approximately 20 billion euros a year on maintenance, including sending maintenance staff, often at night, to inspect and repair the rail infrastructure. That can be dangerous work that could be avoided with drones assisting the crews' efforts.
By using the latest technologies, drones could also start providing higher-value services for railways, detecting faults in the rail or switches, before they can cause any safety problems. To perform these tasks, drones for rail don't need to be flying overhead. Engineers are now working on a new concept: the rail drones of the future. They will be moving on the track ahead of the train, and programmed to run autonomously. Very small drones with advanced sensors and AI and travelling ahead of the train could guide it like a co-pilot. With their ability to see ahead, they could signal any problem, so that fast-moving trains would be able to react in time.
28. What makes the application of drones to rail lines possible?
A. The use of drones in checking on power lines. B. Drones' ability to work at high altitudes.
C. The reduction of cost in designing drones. D. Drones' reliable performance in remote areas.
29. What does "maintenance" underlined in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Personnel safety. B. Assistance from drones.
C. Inspection and repair. D. Construction of infrastructure.
30. What function is expected of the rail drones?
A. To provide early warning. B. To make trains run automatically.
C. To earn profits for the crews. D. To accelerate transportation.
31. Which is the most suitable title for the text?
A. What Faults Can Be Detected with Drones
B. How Production of Drones Can Be Expanded
C. What Difficulty Drone Development Will Face
D. How Drones Will Change the Future of Railways
D
The Government's sugar tax on soft drinks has brought in half as much money as Ministers first predicted it would generate, the first official data on the policy has shown.
First announced in April, 2016, the tax which applies to soft drinks containing more than 5g of sugar per 100ml, was introduced to help reduce childhood obesity（肥胖）. It is believed that today's children and teenagers are consuming three times the recommended level of sugar, putting them at a higher risk of the disease.
Initially the sugar tax was expected to make £520m a year for the Treasury. However, data of the first six months showed it would make less than half this amount. At present it is expected to generate £240m for the year ending in April 2019, which will go to school sports.
It comes after more than half of soft drinks sold in shops have had their sugar levels cut by manufacturers（制造商）so they can avoid paying the tax. Drinks now contain 45 million fewer kilos of sugar as a result of manufacturers' efforts to avoid the charge, according to Treasury figures. Since April drinks companies have been forced to pay between 18p and 24p for every litre of sugary drink they produce or import, depending on the sugar content.
However, some high sugar brands, like Classic Coca Cola, have accepted the sugar tax and are refusing to change for fear of upsetting consumers. Fruit juices, milk-based drinks and most alcoholic drinks are free of the tax, as are small companies manufacturing fewer than 1m litres per year.
Today's figures, according to one government official, show the positive influence the sugar tax is having by raising millions of pounds for sports facilities（设施）and healthier eating in schools. Helping the next generation to have a healthy and active childhood is of great importance, and the industry is playing its part.
32. Why was the sugar tax introduced?
A. To collect money for schools. B. To improve the quality of drinks.
C. To protect children's health. D. To encourage research in education.
33. How did some drinks companies respond to the sugar tax?
A. They turned to overseas markets. B. They raised the prices of their products.
C. They cut down on their production. D. They reduced their products' sugar content.
34. From which of the following is the sugar tax collected?
A. Most alcoholic drinks. B. Milk-based drinks. C. Fruit juices. D. Classic Coke.
35. What can be inferred about the adoption of the sugar tax policy?
A. It is a short-sighted decision. B. It is a success story.
C. It benefits manufacturers. D. It upsets customers.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Friendship needs care and attention to keep it in good health. Here are five ways to sustain（保持）long-distance friendships.
·Set a regular date
Long-lasting friendships share the characteristic that both sides equally contact（联系）and share with one another. With busy schedules, squeezing in phone calls can be a challenge. 36
·More isn't always merrier
Make sure you have communicated with your friend about how frequently each of you wants to be contacted and what method works best for you both. 37 . There are alternatives to constant written communication, such as leaving voice messages or having a group chat.
·Practise empathy（共情）
38 . The friend who is remaining needs to be sensitive to all the additional time demands placed on the friend who has moved. The one in the new environment should be sympathetic to the fact that your friend may feel abandoned.
· 39
Anniversaries and birthdays carry even more weight in long-distance friendships. Although technology might make day-to-day communication possible, extra effort goes a long way on special days. Simply keeping a diary that keeps track of friends' birthdays and other important dates will make sure nothing slips by you.
·Don't rely on technology alone
40 , but long-distance friendships -even close ones -may require more conscious effort to sustain. Try to seek out chances to renew friendships. How to do it? Just spend face-to-face time together whenever possible.
A. Remember important dates
B. Compensate by writing letters
C. It is also helpful for you to be a friendship keeper
D. Try to find a time that works for both of you and stick to it
E. Friends need to talk about their preferred methods of communication
F. It is easy to have a sense of connectedness through social media
G. You may be the friend who left or the one who was left behind
语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Young children across the globe enjoy playing games of hide and seek. For them, there's something highly exciting about 41 someone else's glance and making oneself unable to be seen.
However, we all witness that preschool children are remarkably 42 at hiding. They often cover only their eyes with their hands, leaving the rest of their bodies 43 .
For a long time, this ineffective hiding method was 44 as evidence that children are hopelessly "egocentric"（自我中心的）creatures. But our 45 research results in child developmental psychology 46 that idea.
We brought young children aged 2-4 into our Minds in Development Lab at USC. Each 47 sat down with an adult who covered her own eyes or 48 . We then asked the child if she could 49 or hear the adult. Surprisingly, children replied that they couldn't. The same 50 happened when the adult covered her own mouth: 51 children said that they couldn't 52 to her.
A number of 53 ruled out that the children misunderstood what they were being asked. The results were clear: Our young subjects 54 the questions and knew 55 what was asked of them. Their 56 to the questions reflected their true 57 that "I can see you only if you can see me, too." They simply 58 mutual（相互的）recognition and regard. Our 59 suggest when a child "hides" by putting a blanket over her head, it is not a result of egocentrism. In fact, children consider this method 60 when others use it.
41. A. following B. taking C. escaping D. directing
42. A. clever B. bad C. scared D. quick
43. A. exposed B. examined C. untouched D. imbalanced
44. A. supported B. guaranteed C. imagined D. interpreted
45. A. disappointing B. mixed C. surprising D. desired
46. A. explained B. confirmed C. contradicted D. tested
47. A. parent B. child C. researcher D. doctor
48. A. feet B. nose C. hands D. ears
49. A. see B. help C. reach D. fool
50. A. event B. thing C. action D. accident
51. A. Yet B. Now C. Soon D. Once
52. A. speak B. listen C. tum D. wave
53. A. instructions B. descriptions C. experiments D. assumptions
54. A. comprehended B. predicted C. explored D. ignored
55. A. partly B. honestly C. vaguely D. exactly
56. A. responses B. approaches C. contribution D. sensitivity
57. A. ability B. belief C. identity D. purpose
58. A. hold back B. relate to C. insist on D. make up
59. A. limitations B. requirements C. theories D. findings
60. A. tentative B. impressive C. creative D. effective
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
May 21st this year marks the first International Tea Day, which was named officially 61 the United Nations on November 27th, 2019. To celebrate 62 festival, a number of events took place at the Chinese Businessman Museum in Beijing on Thursday.
The chairman of the China Culture Promotion Society 63 （address）the opening ceremony. "As a main promoter of the International Tea Day, the birthplace of tea and the 64 （large）tea-producing country, China has a 65 （responsible）to work with other countries to promote the healthy development of the tea industry. It can help to build a community with a 66 （share）future for mankind," he said.
The "First International Tea Day Tea Road Cooperative Initiative" issued（发布）at the ceremony calls for people working in the tea industry to come together to promote international cooperation 67 cultural exchanges. A four-year tea promotion—Tea Road Cooperative Plan—was also issued in accordance with the initiative.
68 （strengthen）the connection with young people, the event included a number of public promotional activities on social media, 69 （invite）twenty-nine tea professionals from around the world to have thirty-six hours of uninterrupted live broadcasts.
The Chinese Ancient Tea Museum was officially unveiled（揭幕）at the ceremony, opening 70 （it）first exhibition: The Avenue of Truth—A Special Exhibition of Pu'er Tea.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节，短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（^），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2．只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
We all know that cycling is a greatly exercise. A doctor tells me people
who lives the longest are dancers and cyclists. Maybe it is because the
combination of fresh air, smooth movement and exercise. Whether you ride
a bicycle, you don't use petrol. So they are not producing carbon dioxide
and not cause air pollution. Just see how cars have been taken over our cities.
They often run at high speeds, what may put our lives in danger. And there were
traffic jams, too. Our cities will be better places if we replace cars with bicycle.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
学校英文报正在开展以Learning English Beyond the Classroom为题的讨论。请使用图表中的调查结果写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
1．学习活动状况描述：
2．简单评论；
3．你的建议。
注意：
1．词数100左右；
2．短文的题目和首句已为你写好。
参考答案
全国乙卷答案
第一部分听力
1.B 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.A 11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.A
16.B 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.B
第二部分 阅读理解
21.B 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.D 26.C 27.B 28. A 29.C 30.A 31.D 32.C 33.D 34.D 35.B
七选五
36-40. DEGAF
完形填空
41-45.CBADC 46-50. CBDAB 51-55. BACAD 56-60. ABCDD
语法填空
61.by 62. the 63. addressed 64. largest 65. responsibility
66. shared 67. and 68. to 69. inviting 70. its
改错题
第一句:greatly→great第二句:lives→live
第三句:because后加of第四句:Whether→When
第五句:they→you;cause→causing
第六句:去掉been
第七句:what→which第八句:were→are
第九句:bicycle→bicycles
2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试
英语（全国I卷）
本试卷共10页，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹例笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型（A）填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。
2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B船笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用像皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上：如而改动，先则掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
Grading Scale
90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.
Essays (60%)
Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2-15%; Essay 3= 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.
Group Assignments (30%)
Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.
Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Test/Group Work/Homework (10%)
n Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.
Late Work
An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.
21. Where is this text probably taken from?
A. A textbook.
B. An exam paper.
C. A course plan.
D. An academic article.
22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?
A. Two.
B. Three.
C. Four.
D. Five.
23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?
A. You will receive a zero.
B. You will lose a letter grade.
C. You will be given a test.
D. You will have to rewrite it.
B
Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula (芝麻菜) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.
In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away - from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.
Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”
If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time - but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington. D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.
Such methods seem obvious, yer so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat.” Curtin says.
24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?
A. We pay little attention to food waste.
B. We waste food unintentionally at times.
C. We waste more vegetables than meat.
D. We have good reasons for wasting food.
25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?
A. Moral decline.
B. Environmental harm.
C. Energy shortage.
D. Worldwide starvation.
26. What does Curtin’s company do?
A. It produces kitchen equipment.
B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.
C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.
D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.
27. What does Curtin suggest people do?
A. Buy only what is needed.
B. Reduce food consumption.
C. Go shopping once a week.
D. Eat in restaurants less often.
C
The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.
The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.
Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.
“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.
“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”
There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.
Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”
Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”
28. What is the purpose of the project?
A. To ensure harmony in care homes.
B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.
C. To raise money for medical research.
D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.
29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?
A. She has learned new life skills.
B. She has gained a sense of achievement.
C. She has recovered her memory.
D. She has developed a strong personality.
30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?
A. Improve.
B. Oppose.
C. Begin.
D. Evaluate.
31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?
A. It is well received.
B. It needs to be more creative.
C. It is highly profitable.
D. It takes ages to see the results.
D
Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m”and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.
More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.
They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.
The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large.
Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.
This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.
32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research focus on?
A. Its variety.
B. Its distribution.
C. Its quantity.
D. Its development.
33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?
A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.
B. They could not open and close their lips easily.
C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.
D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.
34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?
A. Supporting evidence for the research results.
B. Potential application of the research findings.
C. A further explanation of the research methods.
D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.
35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?
A. It is key to effective communication.
B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.
C. It is a complex and dynamic system.
D. It drives the evolution of human beings.
第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分。满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “ 36 ” With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.
So, how do you find a workout partner?
First of all, decide what you want from that person. 37 Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.
You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a useful response. 38 If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.
My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. 39
You and your partner will probably have different skills. 40 Over time, both of you will benefit-your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.
A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.
B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.
C. You'll work harder if you train with someone else.
D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?
E. How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?
F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.
G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.
Some of our 41 are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, we 42 along Chalk Creek. I was 43 that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was 44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So 45 tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It 46 -he didn’t end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.
Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we 47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly 48 our peaceful morning trip. The 49 picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to 50 the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed (拖) us back. We were 53 .
Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of 54 , wondering what camping fun and 55 we will experience next.
41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries
42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled
43. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried
44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid
45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D.as for
46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed
47. A. signed up B. calmed downC. checked out D. headed off
48. A. arranged B. interruptedC. completed D. recorded
49. A. wind B. noiseC. temperature D. speed
50. A. find B. hideC. start D. fix
51. A. luck B. answerC. wonder D. signal
52. A. patiently B. tirelesslyC. doubtfully D. helplessly
53. A. sorry B. braveC. safe D. right
54. A. relief B. dutyC. pride D. excitement
55. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park (GPNP). 56 (cover) an area about three times 57 size of Yellowstone National Part, the GPNP will be one of the first national park in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that 58 (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority 59 (increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.
After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP 60 (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, 61 leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity between separate 62 (population)and homes of giant pandas, and 63 (eventual) achieve a desired level of population in the wild.
Giant pandas also serve 64 an umbrella species (物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species 65 live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.
第四部分 写作（共两节、满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：
1.节目介绍；
2.访谈的时间和话题。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Caroline,
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route (路线) through thick evergreen forest.
I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn't with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.
What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!
I quickly searched the crowd for the school's coach and asked him what had happened. "I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him," he explained uncomfortably. "I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide."
I bit back my frustration (懊恼). I knew the coach meant well-he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.
David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer -that's all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the David faced and was school, I was familiar with the challenges the challenges proud of his strong determination.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn't look at me.
I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.
参考答案第一部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
21 ~ 23 CBA 24 ~ 27 BBDA 28 ~ 31 DBCA 32 ~ 35 DCAC
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
36 ~ 40 CDBGF
第二部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41 ~ 45 CADCB 46 ~ 50 ADBAC 51 ~ 55 ADCDB
（内容来源：网络）